Rom 3:10-12 | Barnes | STEP | Verse 10. As it is written . The apostle is reasoning with Jews; and he proceeds to show, from their own Scriptures, that what he had affirmed was true. The point to be proved was, that the Jews, in the matter of justification, had no advantage or preference over the Gentiles; that the Jew had failed to keep the law which had been given him , as the Gentile had failed to keep the law which had been given him; and that both therefore were equally dependent on the mercy of God, incapable of being justified and saved by their works. To show this the apostle adduces texts, to show what was the character of the Jewish people; or to show that, according to their own Scriptures, they were sinners no less than the Gentiles. The point then is, to prove the depravity of the Jews , not that of universal depravity. The interpretation should be confined to the bearing of the passages on the Jews, and the quotations should not be adduced as directly proving the doctrine of universal depravity. In a certain sense, which will be stated soon, they may be adduced as bearing on that subject. But their direct reference is to the Jewish nation. The passages which follow are taken from various parts of the Old Testament. The design of this is to show, that this characteristic of sin was not confined to any particular period of the Jewish history, but pertained to them as a people ; that it had characterized them throughout their existence as a nation. Most of the passages are quoted in the language of the Septuagint. The quotation in , is from , and from . The fifty-third psalm is the same as the fourteenth, with some slight variations. There is none righteous . The Hebrew ( ) is, there is none that doeth good. The Septuagint has the same. The apostle quotes according to the sense of the passage. The design of the apostle is to show that none could be justified by the law. He uses an expression, therefore, which is exactly conformable to his argument, and which accords in meaning with the Hebrew, there is none just --δικαιος. No, not one . This is not in the Hebrew, but is in the Septuagint. It is a strong universal expression, denoting the state of almost universal corruption which existed in the time of the psalmist. The expression should not be interpreted to mean that there was not literally one pious man in the nation; but that the characteristic of the nation was, at that time, that it was exceedingly corrupt. Instead of being righteous, as the Jew claimed, because they were Jews, the testimony of their own Scriptures was, that they were universally wicked. (r) "There is none righteous"

Romans 3:10-12

Verse 10. As it is written. The apostle is reasoning with Jews; and he proceeds to show, from their own Scriptures, that what he had affirmed was true. The point to be proved was, that the Jews, in the matter of justification, had no advantage or preference over the Gentiles; that the Jew had failed to keep the law which had been given him, as the Gentile had failed to keep the law which had been given him; and that both therefore were equally dependent on the mercy of God, incapable of being justified and saved by their works. To show this the apostle adduces texts, to show what was the character of the Jewish people; or to show that, according to their own Scriptures, they were sinners no less than the Gentiles. The point then is, to prove the depravity of the Jews, not that of universal depravity. The interpretation should be confined to the bearing of the passages on the Jews, and the quotations should not be adduced as directly proving the doctrine of universal depravity. In a certain sense, which will be stated soon, they may be adduced as bearing on that subject. But their direct reference is to the Jewish nation. The passages which follow are taken from various parts of the Old Testament. The design of this is to show, that this characteristic of sin was not confined to any particular period of the Jewish history, but pertained to them as a people; that it had characterized them throughout their existence as a nation. Most of the passages are quoted in the language of the Septuagint. The quotation in Rom 3:10-12, is from Ps 14:1-3, and from Ps 53:1-3. The fifty-third psalm is the same as the fourteenth, with some slight variations.

There is none righteous. The Hebrew (Ps 14:1) is, there is none that doeth good. The Septuagint has the same. The apostle quotes according to the sense of the passage. The design of the apostle is to show that none could be justified by the law. He uses an expression, therefore, which is exactly conformable to his argument, and which accords in meaning with the Hebrew, there is none just--δικαιος.

No, not one. This is not in the Hebrew, but is in the Septuagint. It is a strong universal expression, denoting the state of almost universal corruption which existed in the time of the psalmist. The expression should not be interpreted to mean that there was not literally one pious man in the nation; but that the characteristic of the nation was, at that time, that it was exceedingly corrupt. Instead of being righteous, as the Jew claimed, because they were Jews, the testimony of their own Scriptures was, that they were universally wicked.

(r) "There is none righteous" Ps 14, Ps 53 Verse 11. There is none that understandeth. In the Hebrew, (Ps 14:2), God is represented as looking down from heaven to see, that is, to make investigation, whether there were any that understood or sought after him. This circumstance gives not only high poetic beauty to the passage, but deep solemnity and awfulness. God, the Searcher of hearts, is represented as making investigation on this very point, he looks down from heaven for this very purpose, to ascertain whether there were any righteous. In the Hebrew it is not asserted, though it is clearly and strongly implied, that none such were found. That fact the apostle states. If, as the result of such an investigation, none were found; if God did not specify that there were any such; then it follows that there were none. For none could escape the notice of his eye; and if there had been any, the benevolence of his heart would have led him to record it. To understand is used in the sense of being wise; or of having such a state of moral feeling as to dispose them to serve and obey God. The word is often used in the Bible, not to denote a mere intellectual operation of the mind, but the state of the heart inclining the mind to obey and worship God, Ps 107:43, 119:27,100 Prov 2:5, Isa 6:10: "Lest they should understand with their heart," etc.

That seeketh after God. That endeavours to know and do his will, and to be acquainted with his character. A disposition not to seek after God, that is, to neglect and forget him, is one of the most decided proofs of depravity. A righteous man counts it his highest privilege and honour to know God, and to understand his will. A man can indulge in wickedness only by forgetting God. Hence a disposition not to seek God is full proof of depravity. Verse 12. They have all gone out of the way. They have declined from the true path of piety and virtue.

They are together. They have at the same time; or they have equally become unprofitable. They are as one; they are joined, or united, in this declension. The expression denotes union or similarity.

Become unprofitable. This word in Hebrew means, to become putrid and offensive, like fruit that is spoiled. In Arabic, it is applied to milk that becomes sour. Applied to moral subjects, it means to become corrupt and useless. They are of no value in regard to works of righteousness.

There is none, etc. This is taken literally from the Hebrew.